Question
A man owes his wife a big amount of money being for her Mehr which he has not paid. She committed adultery, hence the husband divorced her. Now she is demanding her Mehr. Is it valid for the husband to refuse paying her the Mehr because of her adultery?
Answer
No, it is not valid. He has to incumbently pay the Mehr regardless of her infidelity.
- Source
- themajlis.co.za
- Published in
- The Majlis Vol 27 No 01
- PDF page
- 4
Appears under LOOKING AT PICTURES (approximate).